More Conversation Starters

by Carlos Xavier

If Jesus is God because he claims to be "one" with the Father [John 10.30], how do you explain verses where believers are said to be “one IN THE SAME WAY” [John 20.17.20-23; 1Cor 3.8]?

The Bible says Jesus has a God [John 20.17; Rev 3.12-13] YET, the other "Persons" of the Trinity do not. Is this not a sign of inequality within the one Triune Godhead?

If Jesus is described as being "with God" from eternity in John 1.1, how does this not contradict Isa 44.6 ["there is no god WITH me"] & related verses [Isa 44.24]?

If Jesus is God because he shares in the Divine Nature, aren't believers also God because they "share in the Divine Nature" [2Pe 1.4]?

Article 1 of Moody Bible Institute's doctrinal statement of faith says:

"God is a Person who has revealed Himself as a Trinity in unity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit—three Persons and yet one God."

Does this mean that "1 Person = 3 Persons"?

If God is 3 Persons, why is blasphemy against only 1 of the Persons considered "the unpardonable sin" [Mat 12.31-32]?

If God is 3 Persons, why does knowledge of only 2 of the Persons lead to eternal life and not all 3 [John 17.3]?

Is something wrong with this picture..?
1. God cannot be seen.
2. Jesus was seen.
3. Jesus is God.

If Jesus points to someone ELSE OTHER THAN HIMSELF as the Creator of Genesis [Mat 19.4; Mar 10.6; 13.19] how can he be God?!

I would like for you to consider the phrase, "he himself". By my count it occurs 45x in the NASB (8x in the OT, 37x in the NT). How many persons would a Trinitarian understand the phrase "he himself" to be speaking about?

In the NT Greek there are 3 words translated as the English “one”: 

• en neuter, i.e., for a thing [cp. John 20.12]; 
  
• eis [masculine];
• mia [feminine] for a person. 

This means that whenever we read “one God” it uses the masculine eis, implying not only one person but, namely, the Father: Mark 10.18, James 2.19, 1Cor 8.6. So, if the “one God” of the Bible refers to the One Person of the Father, isn’t it impossible for the phrase to also consist of 3 Persons in One God, i.e., Father, Son, Holy Spirit?

Many Christians teach that when scripture says God SENT His Son into the world [John 3.17; Heb 1.6], it means that Jesus LITERALLY existed before he was born. If this is true, how would do they explain verses like John 17.18; 20.21?

If Jesus is God how can his statement that the Father is "the Only One Who is true God" (John 17.1, 3) be in anyway true?

How would those Christians who teach that the Trinity came about through "progressive revelation", ending namely with the later Nicene-Chalcedon councils, deal with Jesus' CLEAR statement that he and his fellow Jews worship a God that they "do know" (John 4.22)?!

If Jesus existed as a "spirit being" before he was born [as "God the Word/Son," a god, angel/archangel], how do we account for 1 Cor 15.46?

Question for those who keep citing the MT vowel points as illegitimate due to their late date: 

What exactly are you implying? 

A. That the word for the 2nd "lord" of Ps 110.1 means something else? If so what?

B. That the MT text is corrupted and if so why?

C. That the Greek LXX does not reflect the l'adoni of the vowel points? And if it does, do you regard the LXX as "inspired"?