The Old Testament and Early Rabbinic Background of a Pauline Expression by Edward A. Engelbrecht
Nils Engelsen, in his 1970
doctoral dissertation, “Glossolalia and Other Forms of Inspired Speech
according to 1 Corinthians 12-14”,[1]
pulled together the research current in his day on the topic of
"tongues." He supported the general conclusion that the expression
"to speak in a tongue" was being used by Paul in a technical way to
describe ecstatic activity in the Corinthian congregation. This is also the
conclusion of Roy Harrisville in his article interacting with Engelsen's
dissertation, "Speaking in Tongues: A Lexicographical Study.”[2]
Both of these studies point away from Paul as the first to use the expression in
this technical way. It is argued that the expression instead has its derivation
in pre-Christian Judaism. The difficulty with this thesis is that there are no
specific sources which use the expression to describe unintelligible, ecstatic
speech prior to Paul, making the conclusions of Engelsen and Harrisville rather
tenuous. Since "to speak in a tongue" occurs a number of times in the
Old Testament, the Dead Sea Scrolls, and Rabbinic literature, it is necessary
to consider these writings to determine the origin and meaning of Paul's
expression. This article proposes that "to speak in a tongue" was a
common Semitic idiom adapted by Paul. It was suggested to him by the prophecy
of Isaiah 28:11, which he used to address the difficulties at Corinth. The
expression's application in Semitic literature is not to ecstatic speech but to
speaking in a foreign language.
After surveying New Testament
usage, Harrisville begins his search for the origin of Paul's expression in the
most obvious place— the Old Testament. In the Septuagint he discovers that “tongue”
is used with “speak” 7 times.[3]
Other appearances, where the words stand independently of one another, result
in a list of twenty passages suggestive of New Testament use. However, after
considering the relationship of these passages to Paul's application of the
expression, Harrisville surmises,
We cannot conclude without
further ado that the Septuagint usage has in any way influenced that of the New
Testament. The similarities between the Septuagint and New Testament references
are, in the last analysis, few and far between. Indeed, the Septuagint
translator appears to have known nothing of a technical term for speaking in
tongues.[4]
Engelsen begins his dissertation
with a different methodology. Rather than examining the occurrences and uses of
glossa and lalein, he seeks out examples of ecstatic speech. After a complete
survey of ecstatic utterance in pre-Christian Greek literature, Engelsen
affirms, The term glossais (glosoon) lalein, or any similar expression
particularly referring to inarticulate speech, does not occur in any of the
texts. So far it has not been evidenced in Greek literature outside the New
Testament."[5]
Harrisville agrees after noting one possible exception, two reconstructed lines
of a hymn to Imanthes-Asclepius in the Oxyrhynchus Papyri.[6]
While examples of ecstatic speech are common, the expression "to speak in
a tongue" is essentially unknown in pre-Christian Greek apart from the
passages in the Septuagint mentioned above.[7]
Harrisville rounds out his survey
with a look at Qumran literature. There he finds two explicit references to
Isaiah's prophecies. In the Masoretic text it is God who will speak to His
stubborn people through the strange tongues of their Assyrian captors. But in
the examples from Qumran the passage is reapplied to the "lying
prophets" or "seekers after smooth things." They have exchanged
teaching and understanding for "lips of uncircumcision, and for the
foreign tongue of a people without understanding, that they might come to ruin
in their straying" (Thanksgiving Hymn 2:18). Again in hymn 4:16,
"They come to inquire of Thee from the mouth of lying prophets deceived by
error who speak [with strange] lips to Thy people, and an alien tongue, that
they may cunningly turn all their works to folly."[8]
Harrisville concedes that these examples do not apply directly to ecstatic
speech, but he suggests that the apotalyptic and prophetic environment of the
community that produced the Qumran literature provided fertile ground for the
development of “tongue speak” as technical terminology for ecstatic speech.
Thus, despite differences in methodology, Harrisville and Engelsen come to
essentially the same conclusion: The expression "to speak in a
tongue" as used by Paul to mean ecstatic utterance has its origin in
pre-Christian Judaism.[9]
There is, however, a common
problem in the methodology of both these studies. They begin with the
assumption that Paul understood "speaking in tongues" to mean
"ecstatic speech" and do not fully consider other possible meanings.
Because of this decision, Harrisville and Engelsen end up searching for
examples of ecstatic speech rather than considering how the actual examples of
the expression relate to Paul's use. In other words, they find no examples of
this expression used for ecstatic speech prior to Paul. Still they fail to
question the meaning that they have attributed to the expression in Paul's
usage. They conclude that because of the frequency and consistency with which
Paul uses the expression, it must have meant ecstatic speech sometime prior to
him even though there is not a single text testifying to this use. What other
possible meaning could the expression "to speak in a tongue" have?
Harrisville concluded that the Old Testament passages using this expression had
precious little to do with Paul's usage. These passages need to be reexamined
leaving aside the concern to find some connection with ecstatic speech.
Old Testament Examples
Isaiah 28:11 says, "Very
well then, with foreign lips and strange tongues God will speak to this
people." Paul quotes this very passage to direct the worship practices of
the Corinthian congregation. Here the meaning of the expression in Isaiah is
easily discerned; it describes the language of the Assyrians who have captured
the Israelites and are leading them away into captivity. "To speak in
tongues" in Isaiah 28:11 means "to speak foreign languages."
A similar expression occurs in
Esther 1:22. The King's decree is given "to each people in its own
language, proclaiming in each people's tongue that every man should be ruler
over his own household." The verb and the noun are the same in Isaiah 28.
The only differences are the use of the Hebrew preposition rather than the use
of the Hebrew modifier. Despite these variations the basic expression and its
meaning are like that of Isaiah, "to speak a foreign language."
A third example is Nehemiah
13.24, which says, "Half of their children spoke the language of Ashdod or
the language of one of the other peoples, and did not know how to speak the language
of Judah." Same Hebrew verb and noun. The preposition as in Esther (qoph)
rather than (beth). Yet the meaning once again is “to speak a foreign
language.”
A final example is found in
Jeremiah 5:15 that says, "I am bringing a distant nation against you—an
ancient and enduring nation, a people whose language you do not know, whose
speech you do not understand." The last colon of this poetic parallelism
literally reads, "And you will not understand what it [i.e., this nation]
says." The verb of speaking and noun for language in the previous,
parallel line is the same. The passage as a whole is dramatically similar to
Isaiah 28:11—God will bring a nation that speaks a foreign language to judge
His people.
Depending on how one dates
passages of Scripture, the prophecies of Isaiah 28 and Jeremiah 5 may stem from
one of the curses for disobedience recorded in Deuteronomy. Deuteronomy 28:49
says, "The LORD will bring a nation against you from far away, from the
end of the earth, like an eagle swooping down, a nation whose language you will
not understand, a fierce-looking nation without respect for the old or pity for
the young." The expression here is very similar in context to those given
above. At the very least this passage testifies to the same tradition of
foreign language as a sign of God's punishment upon His rebellious people.
It is this tradition of foreign
language as a sign of God's punishment that lies behind Paul's quotation and
application of Isaiah 28:11. This passage also appears to be the impetus behind
his choice of "to speak in a tongue" as a description of the
phenomenon at Corinth.[10]
Isaiah's prophecy becomes a proof passage for Paul's halakic counsel that
tongues are not beneficial unless translated, while prophecy is always
beneficial.[11]
Previous studies into the origin
and meaning of Paul's expression have not taken note of the consistent use of
this theme and idiom in the Old Testament because they have concentrated upon
the Septuagint text rather than the Hebrew. This turns out to be a real problem
because as one begins to search the Hebrew and Aramaic texts beyond the Old
Testament one finds this expression again and again.
Examples in the Dead Sea Scrolls
The two passages in the
Thanksgiving Hymns in the Dead Sea Scrolls have already been mentioned since
they were treated by Harrisville and Engelsen.[12]
They are allusions to Isaiah 28:11 or 33:19 describing the language of the
invading Assyrians. It is not clear what "language" is being attacked
by the writer of the Thanksgiving Hymns. The application of the expression is
different from Isaiah 28:11 in that language becomes a sign of the sinfulness
of the user rather than of the people against whom the language is used. In
Isaiah 28:11 it is the Assyrians speaking against sinful Judah. In Qumran it is
the sinful false prophets speaking against the Qumran community. This is more
the sense in Isaiah 33:19, "You will see those arrogant people no more,
those people of an obscure speech with their strange, incomprehensible tongue."
Otto Betz has argued compellingly that these allusions to the prophecies of
Isaiah have become another way of calling the opponents of Qumran false
prophets.[13]
If he is correct, then this would be the first time that "to speak in a
tongue" meant something other than "to speak a foreign
language."
Examples in the Mishnah
The same expression as found in
the Hebrew of the Old Testament and the Thanksgiving Hymn of Qumran appears in
the Mishnah, which along with other Rabbinic literature was not considered by
Harrisville and Engelsen. In fact it appears that no modern study has consulted
these texts regarding the meaning of "to speak in a tongue."[14]
Sotah 7:1 says, "These are said in any language: (1) the pericope of the
accused wife [Num. 5:19-22], and (2) the confession of the tithe [Deut.
26:13-15], and (3) the recital of the Shema [Deut. 6:4-9], and (4) the Prayer,
(5) the oath of testimony, and (6) the oath concerning a bailment."[15]
This is a list of liturgical passages that could be recited in any language,
that is, spoken in any tongue. Unlike the Old Testament, the verb of speaking
is different, though this does not affect the meaning. A further example occurs
at Shabbat 16:1 concerning Holy Scriptures "written in any language."
In contrast Sotah 7:2 says,
And these are
said in the Holy Language (1) the verses of the first fruits [Deut. 26:3-10],
(2) the rite of Halisah [Deut. 25:7, 9], (3) blessings and curses, (4) the blessings
of the priests [Num. 6.24-26], (5) the blessing of a high priest [on the Day of
Atonement], (6) the pericope of the king [Deut. 17:14-20], (7) the pericope of
the heifer whose neck is to be broken [Deut. 21:7f.], and (8) [the message of]
the anointed for battle when he speaks to the people [Deut. 20:2-7].
See also Sotah 7:3; 7:4; and 8:1.
These passages are specifically designated for the holy language, that is
Hebrew. The expression is the same as above.
Another example from the Mishna
is Megillah 2:1, concerning the public reading of Scripture:
He who reads the
Scroll backwards has not fulfilled his obligation. [If] he reads it by heart,
[if] he read it in Aramaic translation or in any [other] language, he has not
fulfilled his obligation. But they do read it to those, who speak a foreign
language in a foreign language. Still, one who speaks a foreign language who
heard it in Assyrian [Hebrew], has fulfilled his obligation.
The prepositional phrase is the
same as in the passages mentioned above but with a different verb to designate
reading as opposed to recitation. The expression at the end of the passage
regarding speaking a foreign language employs the word used for the
"foreign lips" of Isaiah 28:11. This creates an interesting parallel
since both expressions used for the foreign language of the Assyrians appear
here together again in the Mishnah.
Examples in the Targums
The same type of expression found
in the Hebrew of Tannaitic literature occurs in the Aramaic of the Targums.
Here the verbs "to speak" or "to call" used in a particular
language. Hebrew is distinguished from other languages as “the holy
language" or the "language of the sanctuary." Targum Onkelos
(first or second century A.D.) simply translates the Hebrew of Isaiah 28:11 and
33:19. Targum Neophyti 1 (pre-third or fourth century A.D.) adds several other
passages Genesis 2:19; 11:1; 31:47; and 45:12; Esther 1.22 and 2.21. Targum
Ps-Jonathan (redacted after seventh or eighth century A.D.) also uses this
expression—Genesis 11:1; 31:47; 321; 42:23; 45:12; Deuteronomy 25:7 and 8. This
is probably not an exhaustive list of the use of this expression in the
Targums. To this list of Aramaic examples could be added the many uses of this
expression in the Syriac of the Peshitta.
Conclusions
It needs to be stated once again
that the expression "to speak in a tongue" is unknown in
pre-Christian Greek literature apart from a few examples in the translation of
the Old Testament. In contrast, the Hebrew Bible, the Thanksgiving Hymns of
Qumran, the Mishnah, and the Aramaic of the Targums provide numerous examples
of the expression.[16]
In light of this evidence it is not difficult to conclude that "to speak
in a tongue" is a semitic idiom and that earlier studies which
concentrated on finding its origin and meaning in Greek literature were
misguided. It should also be noted that "to speak in a tongue" is
never used in the sense of "ecstatic utterance" and (apart from two
polemical passages in the Thanksgiving Hymns) consistently refers to the
speaking of a foreign language or the holy language, Hebrew.
The expression used by Paul in 1
Corinthians 14 as well as other passages of the New Testament initially meant
"to speak a foreign language." Whether Paul understood the expression
in this sense cuts to the very heart of the interpretation of the passage. It
could easily be argued that Paul has reworked this expression to mean
"ecstatic utterance." The fact that it meant "to speak a foreign
language" almost everywhere else does not necessarily establish that
meaning for Paul in 1 Corinthians. However, there may be a simpler way of
looking at the passage. It is possible that Paul saw speaking in tongues,
whatever it actually was, as genuine language (like those described in Acts 2)
rather than mantic, ecstatic babbling. Then his halakic interpretation of
Isaiah 28 would have suggested both the use of the expression and its basis for
warning against abuses of God's gifts.
[1] Ph.D
dissertation, Yale University, 1970.
[2] Catholic
Biblical Quarterly, 38 (January 1976): 35-48. Much of the research on the
subject of glossolalia was conducted during the 1970s when the charismatic
movement was making its initial impact upon mainline denominations. Since that
time tongues have ceased to be a major topic of scholarly inquiry.
[3] lbid.,
pp. 38-39. The passages are Job 33:2; Pss. 36(37):30; 38(39):4(3); 108(109):2;
Is. 19:18; 28:11.
[4] lbid.,
p. 39.
[5] Engelsen,
p. 20.
[6] See
Harrisville, p. 39.
[7] A
key set of passages in the study of the origin of speaking in tongues has been
chapters 49-52 in the pseudepigraphic Testament of Job. Here we are told that
Job's daughters speak and sing in the "languages" of the angels. The
expression "to speak in a tongue" is never used. The Greek word for
language is instead dialektos, the
term used by Luke in Acts. There are several difficulties with applying this
passage directly to 1 Corinthians. The first is the history of the text itself
R. P. Spittler suggests that the originally Jewish work about Job was edited by
the Montanists in the second century, adding the references to angelic
languages, See The Old Testament Pseudepigraha, vol. 1, edited by James H.
Charlesworth (New York: Doubleday, 1983), p. 834. Also the term 61,04E1c-roc
can refer to a manner of speaking and not specifically to language (although
that interpretation seems unlikely here). Lastly, what Paul means when he says
"the languages of men and angels" in 1 Corinthians 13 causes difficulty.
He may just be offering up polar extremes to illustrate the absurdity of a
Christian without love (as he does throughout the rest of the chapter in a most
hyperbolic manner). In this case "languages of men and angels" may be
another way of saying "any language." There is also the problem that
already in the Mishnah (second cent. A.D.) and Targum Neophiti 1 (pre-third or
fourth cent. A D.) Hebrew was considered the holy or heavenly language. In the
Babylonian Talmud Hebrew is specifically called the language of the angels.
While these sources are later than Paul, they may reflect early tradition. Thus
Paul's comment could be a reference to both sacred and profane language, again
meaning "any language" and not that "speaking in tongues"
was specifically angelic in character.
[8] The
translations are from G. Vermes, The Dead Sea Scrolls in English, 3rd ed.
(Sheffield, England: J.S.O.T. Press, 1987), pp. 169 and 175. In his article
"The Historical Background of Qumran HebreW," Scripta Hierosolymiyana
4 (1958), C. Rabin concludes that these are references to Mishnaic Hebrew, p.
146.
[9] Harrisville
suggests what he thinks are the only other alternatives to this hypothesis,
". . . to fix the origins of the technical term with Jewish Christianity
or with Paul" (p. 46).
[10] Herodotus
uses a form of phaw with glossa to express speaking a language.
See History 1.58; 4.108 and 155; 8.135. This is also used by Polybius in his
Histories 2.17. A variety of verbs occur with glossa in Dionysius of Halicarnassus' Roman Antiquities: [2.50],
[5.28], and [8.56]. Such expression would have been available to Paul, but he
elected not to use them. Instead he used an expression from the Old Testament.
[11] For
a discussion of Paul's use of halakic interpretation in 1 Corinthians 14 see
Peter J. Tomson's Paul and the Jewish
Law: Halakha in the Letters of the Apostle to the Gentiles (Minneapolis:
Fortress, 1990), pp. 131-144. It is also suggested by E Earle Ellis in Paul's Use of the Old Testament (Grand
Rapids: Baker, 1957), p. 108 that Isaiah 28:11-12 had a pre-history in
anti-Jewish polemics. See also Gerhard Dautzenberg
Urchristliche Prophetie: Ihre Erforschung. ihre Voraussetzungen im Judentum und
ihre Struktur im ersten Korintherbrief (Stuttgart: W. Kohlhammer, 1975), p.
244.
[12] IQH
2 (p 169)—"They have exchanged them for lips of uncircumcision and for the
foreign tongue of a people without understanding, that they might come to ruin
in their straying." I QH 7 (p. 175)—"...from the mouth of lying prophets
deceived by error who speak [with strange] lips to Thy people, and an alien
tongue. Despite the release of many new Qumran texts, further uses of "to
speak in a tongue" have not come to light.
[13] Betz
does not deal with the question of whether there was another language involved.
"Zungenreden und sii.f3er Wein: Zur eschatologischen Exegese von Jesaja 28
im Qumran und im Neuen Testament." in Bibel und Qumran (Berlin:
Evangelische Haupt-Bibelgesellschaft, 1968), p. 22.
[14]
H. L. Strack and P. Billerbeck's Kommentar
zum Neuen Testament aus Talmud und Midrash, 6 vols. (Munich: Beck,
1922-1961) essentially skips over the question of the origin of "to speak
in tongues" in 1 Corinthians 14.
[15] Jacob
Neusner, Mishnah: A New Translation
(New Haven, CT: Yale University Press, 1988).
[16] Examples
could be multiplied from later Midrash literature and the Babylonian Talmud.